Use the graph of f(x) to explain the relationship between the real zeros of f(x) and its intercept(s).

f(x) has one real zero at –2 because the graph of the function has an intercept at (0, –2).
f(x) has two real zeros at –4 and –2 because the graph of the function has intercepts at (–4, 0) and (0, –2).
f(x) has no real zeros because the graph of the function does not pass through (0, 0).
f(x) has one real zero at –4 because the graph of the function has an intercept at (–4, 0).


Use the graph of fx to explain the relationship between the real zeros of fx and its intercepts fx has one real zero at 2 because the graph of the function has class=

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Answer:

f(x) has one real zero at –4 because the graph of the function has an intercept at (–4, 0).

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it correct for the test

Answer: It's D or f(x) has one real zero at –4 because the graph of the function has an intercept at (–4, 0).

Step-by-step explanation: