Select the best answer. When we standardize the values of a variable, the distribution of standardized values has mean 0 and standard deviation 1. Suppose we measure two variables X and Y on each of several subjects. We standardize both variables and then compute the least-squares regression line. Suppose the slope of the least-squares regression line is -0.44. We may conclude that (a) the intercept will also be -0.44. (b) the intercept will be 1.0. (c) the correlation will be 1/-0.44. (d) the correlation will be 1.0. (e) the correlation will also be -0.44.

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Answer:

(e) the correlation will also be -0.44

Step-by-step explanation:

If

μx = μy = 0

σx = σy = 1

m = -0.44

We know that the slope is the linear correlation is

m = r*(σy / σx)

⇒   r = (m*σx) / σy  

⇒  r = (-0.44*1) / 1 = -0.44

The conclusion that gives the best answer of least squares regression line is;

Option E;  the correlation will also be -0.44.

We are told that the distribution of standard values has mean of 0. Thus;

μ_x = 0

μ_y = 0

We are told that the distribution of standard values has standard deviation as 1. Thus;

σ_x = 1

σ_y = 1

We are given that the slope of the least squares regression line is -0.44. Thus;

m = -0.44

Now, formula for the slope of the linear correlation is given by;

m = r(σ_y / σ_x)

where r is the correlation. Thus;

r = m(σ_x/σ_y)  

r = (-0.44)(1/1)

r = -0.44

In conclusion, looking at the given options, the only that corresponds to having the correlation as 1 is Option E.

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