PLEASE HELP THIS IS TIMED !!!!!

Use the graph of f(x) to explain the relationship between the real zeros of f(x) and its intercept(s).

A. ) f(x) has one real zero at –2 because the graph of the function has an intercept at (0, –2).
B. ) f(x) has two real zeros at –4 and –2 because the graph of the function has intercepts at (–4, 0) and (0, –2).
C. ) f(x) has no real zeros because the graph of the function does not pass through (0, 0).
D. ) f(x) has one real zero at –4 because the graph of the function has an intercept at (–4, 0).