This is a question about inverse/transcendental functions. Can anyone confirm that the answer is D? The question is asking which statement is FALSE, and I'm bouncing back and forth a bit.
Your choice is correct. The slope of the function on the interval is negative. The slope of the inverse function is the reciprocal of that, still negative.
It is NOT true that [tex]\dfrac{d}{dx} \left( f^{-1}(x) \right) \ge 0[/tex]
